AIBB Investment Banking পরীক্ষার প্রস্তুতির জন্য previous questions and solutions-এর একটি সম্পূর্ণ সংগ্রহ। এখানে আপনি পাবেন portfolio return, bond valuation, CAPM, WACC, Sukuk analysis, এবং stock valuation-এর মতো গুরুত্বপূর্ণ টপিকের step-by-step সমাধান। প্রতিটি প্রশ্নের উত্তর দেওয়া হয়েছে exam-standard format-এ, যা আপনাকে conceptual clarity এবং exam confidence উভয়ই দেবে। This page is regularly updated with the latest AIBB Investment Banking past papers and expert solutions to help you ace your exam with ease.


IBB 7th Banking Exam 2026 | AIBB Investment Banking Q5, Q6 ও Case Study সম্পূর্ণ সমাধান

IBB 7th Banking Professional Examination 2026-এর AIBB Investment Banking (IB) প্রস্তুতি নিচ্ছেন? তাহলে এই ভিডিওটি আপনার জন্য অত্যন্ত গুরুত্বপূর্ণ। এখানে Question 5 ও Question 6-এর গাণিতিক সমস্যা এবং দুটি গুরুত্বপূর্ণ Case Study সহজ ও ধাপে ধাপে সমাধান করে দেখানো হয়েছে। শুধু উত্তর নয়—কোন সূত্র কোথায় ব্যবহার করতে হবে এবং কীভাবে পরীক্ষার খাতায় সঠিকভাবে হিসাব উপস্থাপন করতে হবে, সেটিও বুঝিয়ে দেওয়া হয়েছে।

এই ক্লাসে থাকছে Expected Portfolio Return, ROE, ROA, Gordon Growth Model (GGM), WACC, CAPM, Equity Valuation, Sustainable Growth Rate, P/E Multiple, Portfolio Beta এবং Systematic Risk-এর গুরুত্বপূর্ণ সমাধান। বিশেষভাবে Case-1: ABC Pharmaceuticals-এর Equity Valuation এবং Case-2: Portfolio Risk & Return Analysis পরীক্ষার উপযোগী পদ্ধতিতে ব্যাখ্যা করা হয়েছে।

👉 IBB 7th Banking Exam 2026-এর Investment Banking Q5, Q6 ও Case Study-এর সম্পূর্ণ সমাধান দেখতে নিচের Play বাটনে ক্লিক করুন। এই ভিডিওটি JAIBB/AIBB, BBA, MBA, MBM, CMA এবং Finance & Banking-এর শিক্ষার্থীদের জন্যও গুরুত্বপূর্ণ। ভিডিওটি দেখে আপনার প্রস্তুতি আরও শক্তিশালী করুন এবং পরীক্ষার আগে গুরুত্বপূর্ণ numerical ও case-based প্রশ্নগুলো একবারে ঝালিয়ে নিন।


THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 7th Banking Professional Examination, 2026
AIBB · Investment Banking (IB)

Questions

5. (a) A portfolio consists of 60% stock A and 40% stock B. Stock A has a return of 12% and standard deviation 15%, stock B has a return of 18% and standard deviation 25%, and the correlation coefficient between the two stocks is 0.3. Calculate the expected portfolio return.

5. (b) Company financials:

  • Net Income: BDT 6,00,000
  • Total Assets: BDT 40,00,000
  • Equity: BDT 20,00,000
  • Liabilities: BDT 20,00,000
  • Current Assets: BDT 12,00,000
  • Current Liabilities: BDT 8,00,000

Calculate ROE and ROA.

6. (a) Green Tech Ltd. is expected to pay a dividend of BDT 5 per share at the end of next year, and dividends are expected to grow at 6% per year indefinitely. If the required return is 12%, calculate the current stock price using the Gordon Growth Model.

6. (b) A company has BDT 20,00,000 in equity with cost of equity 12% and BDT 10,00,000 in debt with cost of debt 8%. If the tax rate is 25%, calculate the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

Use the formula: WACC = ∑ WeKe + WpKp + WdKd (with after-tax cost of debt).

Solutions

5. (a) Expected Portfolio Return

E(Rp) = wA · RA + wB · RB
= (0.60 × 12%) + (0.40 × 18%)
= 7.2% + 7.2% = 14.4%
✅ Expected portfolio return = 14.4%
Note The standard deviations and correlation are not needed for expected return; they are used for portfolio risk (variance).

5. (b) ROE & ROA

ROE = Net Income / Equity
= 6,00,000 / 20,00,000 = 0.30 → 30%
ROA = Net Income / Total Assets
= 6,00,000 / 40,00,000 = 0.15 → 15%
ROE = 30%  |  ROA = 15%
Note Current assets & current liabilities are not required for ROE/ROA.

6. (a) Gordon Growth Model (Stock Price)

P0 = D1 / (r – g)
D1 = BDT 5  ·  r = 12%  ·  g = 6%
P0 = 5 / (0.12 – 0.06) = 5 / 0.06=83.33
✅ Current stock price = BDT 83.33

6. (b) Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

WACC = ∑ WeKe + WpKp + WdKd
Step 1 – Market values & weights
Equity (E) = BDT 20,00,000  ·  Debt (D) = BDT 10,00,000  ·  Total (V) = BDT 30,00,000
We = 20,00,000 / 30,00,000 = 0.6667  ·  Wd = 10,00,000 / 30,00,000 = 0.3333
Step 2 – Component costs
Ke = 12%  ·  Kd (pre-tax) = 8%  ·  Tax rate = 25%
After-tax Kd = 8% × (1 – 0.25) = 6%
Step 3 – Apply WACC formula
WACC = (0.6667 × 12%) + (0 × Kp) + (0.3333 × 6%)
= 8.00% + 0% + 2.00% = 10.00%
✅ WACC = 10.00%
Note No preferred stock (Kp) in this problem, so the term is zero. The formula is fully applied as ∑ WeKe + WpKp + WdKd.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 7th Banking Professional Examination, 2026
AIBB · Investment Banking (IB)

Case-1 : Equity valuation of a listed Pharmaceutical Company

Case Scenario : ABC Pharmaceuticals Ltd. is a publicly listed company with stable operations and moderate growth. A foreign investor plans to buy share and as investment bank has been appointed to determine the fair value of its shares.

Financial Information of ABC Pharmaceuticals Ltd.

  • Current Market Price Per Share : BDT 130
  • Earnings Per Share (EPS) : BDT 12
  • Dividend Payout Ratio : 50%
  • Return On Equity (ROE) : 16%
  • Risk Free Rate : 6%
  • Expected Market Return : 12%
  • Beta : 1.1
  • Industry Average P/E Ratio : 14

Questions:

  1. Estimate the cost of equity using CAPM.
  2. Calculate the expected growth rate using the sustainable growth model.
  3. Determine the intrinsic value using the Gordon Growth Model (GGM).
  4. Estimate the share value using the P/E multiple approach.
  5. Compare both values with the current market price and analyze whether the share is overvalued or undervalued.

Case-2 : Portfolio Risk Return Analysis under market volatility

Case Scenario : A mutual fund manages a diversified equity portfolio for long term institutional investors such as pension funds and insurance companies. The fund manager is considering restructuring part of its portfolio using two major listed stocks :

StockPortfolio weightExpected ReturnsBeta
Stock X50%14%1.4
Stock Y50%10%0.6

Additional market information :

  • Risk free rate : 6%
  • Expected Market Return : 13%

Questions :

  1. Calculate the expected portfolio return and portfolio beta.
  2. Using CAPM, estimate the required rate of return for the portfolio.
  3. Discuss the implications of the current ratio and debt to equity ratio for each company. (Note: Not provided; discuss conceptually)
  4. Explain how systematic risk affects the portfolio during market-wise shocks.
  5. Discuss whether portfolio diversification among these two equities is sufficient or not.

Solutions

Case-1 : ABC Pharmaceuticals Ltd.

(1) Cost of Equity using CAPM
Ke = Rf + β × (Rm – Rf)
= 6% + 1.1 × (12% – 6%) = 6% + 1.1 × 6%
= 6% + 6.6% = 12.6%
✅ Cost of equity = 12.6%
(2) Expected Growth Rate (Sustainable Growth Model)
g = ROE × Retention Ratio
Retention Ratio = 1 – Payout Ratio = 1 – 0.50 = 0.50
g = 16% × 0.50 = 8.0%
✅ Expected growth rate = 8.0%
(3) Intrinsic Value (Gordon Growth Model)
P0 = D1 / (Ke – g)
D1 = EPS × Payout Ratio = 12 × 0.50 = BDT 6.00
P0 = 6.00 / (0.126 – 0.08) = 6.00 / 0.046
= BDT 130.43
✅ Intrinsic value (GGM) = BDT 130.43
(4) Share Value using P/E Multiple Approach
Value = Industry Avg P/E × EPS
= 14 × 12 = BDT 168.00
✅ P/E based value = BDT 168.00
(5) Comparison & Analysis
Current Market PriceBDT 130.00
GGM Intrinsic ValueBDT 130.43
P/E Multiple ValueBDT 168.00
Analysis: The GGM value (BDT 130.43) is very close to the current market price (BDT 130), suggesting the share is fairly valued near its intrinsic worth. However, the P/E multiple approach (BDT 168) indicates the market may be undervaluing the stock relative to industry peers. Given the stable operations and moderate growth, the stock appears slightly undervalued based on industry multiples, but fundamentally fairly priced according to the dividend discount model.

Case-2 : Portfolio Risk Return Analysis

(1) Expected Portfolio Return & Portfolio Beta
E(Rp) = wX·RX + wY·RY
= (0.50 × 14%) + (0.50 × 10%) = 7% + 5% = 12.0%
βp = wX·βX + wY·βY
= (0.50 × 1.4) + (0.50 × 0.6) = 0.70 + 0.30 = 1.0
✅ Portfolio Return = 12.0%  |  Portfolio Beta = 1.0
(2) Required Rate of Return for Portfolio (CAPM)
Kp = Rf + βp × (Rm – Rf)
= 6% + 1.0 × (13% – 6%) = 6% + 7% = 13.0%
✅ Required return (CAPM) = 13.0%
Insight The expected portfolio return (12%) is below the required return (13%), suggesting the portfolio is not adequately compensating for its risk level.
(3) Implications of Current Ratio & Debt-to-Equity Ratio

Current Ratio (Current Assets / Current Liabilities) measures short-term liquidity. A high ratio indicates strong liquidity but may suggest inefficient asset use. A low ratio signals potential liquidity stress.

Debt-to-Equity Ratio (Total Liabilities / Equity) measures financial leverage. A high D/E implies greater financial risk and higher cost of debt, while a low D/E suggests conservative financing. For a mutual fund, these ratios help assess the underlying companies’ financial health and risk exposure.

(Note: Specific company ratios were not provided in the case; this is a conceptual discussion.)

(4) Systematic Risk during Market-Wide Shocks

Systematic risk (market risk) is the inherent risk of the entire market, measured by beta. During market shocks (e.g., financial crisis, interest rate hikes), stocks with high beta (like Stock X, β=1.4) experience magnified losses, while low-beta stocks (Stock Y, β=0.6) are more resilient.

The portfolio beta of 1.0 means it moves in line with the market. During a 10% market downturn, the portfolio would be expected to decline by approximately 10%, making it sensitive to macroeconomic events.

(5) Sufficiency of Diversification

With only two stocks (50% each), the portfolio is not sufficiently diversified. While it reduces unsystematic (company-specific) risk, the portfolio still carries significant systematic risk (β=1.0).

To achieve better diversification, the fund should include more securities across different sectors, geographies, and asset classes. The current two-stock portfolio is highly concentrated and vulnerable to idiosyncratic shocks affecting either stock.

Recommendation: Expand to at least 15–20 stocks across varied industries to reduce unsystematic risk while maintaining the desired beta exposure.


THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 6th Banking Professional Examination, 2025
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

5. (a) A Portfolio Consists of the 3 assets below:

  • Asset A: 40% of fund, expected return = 10%
  • Asset B: 30% of fund, expected return = 11%
  • Asset C: 30% of fund invested, expected return = 8%

(i) What is the expected return of the Portfolio? (Show calculation)

(ii) As Asset B has higher expected return, will you invest all fund in asset B? Why? Why not?

5. (b) A Tk. 1,00,000 par value Bond bears a coupon rate of 11% and matures after 5 years. Interest is payable semi-annually. Find the value of the bond if your required rate of return is 12% (Show calculation).

6. (a) The market value of equity of ABC Corporation is BDT 40 crore, consisting of 2 crore outstanding shares priced at BDT 20 per share. The market value of debt is BDT 60 crore and the company pays an annual interest rate of 8% per annum on its debt. The corporate tax rate is 30% per annum. The beta of the company’s stock is 1.2 and the risk free rate is 4%. The market risk premium is 6%. Calculate the cost of equity using CAPM.

6. (b) Based on the provided information calculate the WACC for ABC Corporation.

Solutions

5. (a) Portfolio Expected Return

(i) Expected Return of Portfolio
E(Rp) = Σ wi × Ri
= (0.40 × 10%) + (0.30 × 11%) + (0.30 × 8%)
= 4.0% + 3.3% + 2.4% = 9.7%
✅ Expected Portfolio Return = 9.7%
(ii) Will you invest all fund in Asset B? Why? Why not?

No, investing all funds in Asset B is not advisable despite its higher expected return (11%) because:

  • Diversification benefits are lost — the portfolio would be concentrated in a single asset, increasing unsystematic risk.
  • Risk-return trade-off — Asset B may have higher volatility (risk) that is not captured by expected return alone.
  • The diversified portfolio (9.7%) offers a more balanced risk profile while still providing competitive returns.

A prudent investor should consider risk, correlation, and overall portfolio objectives, not just expected return.

5. (b) Bond Valuation (Semi-annual)

Method 1: Formula-based Approach
Given: Par Value = Tk. 1,00,000  ·  Coupon = 11% (annual) → 5.5% per half-year  ·  Maturity = 5 years → 10 periods  ·  Required return = 12% → 6% per half-year
Bond Value = [C × (1 – (1 + r)−n) / r] + [F / (1 + r)n]
C (semi-annual coupon) = 1,00,000 × 5.5% = Tk. 5,500
r (semi-annual) = 12% / 2 = 6%  ·  n = 5 × 2 = 10 periods
PV of coupons = 5,500 × [1 – (1.06)−10] / 0.06
= 5,500 × [1 – 0.5584] / 0.06 = 5,500 × 7.3601 = 40,480.55
PV of Par = 1,00,000 / (1.06)10 = 1,00,000 × 0.5584 = 55,839.50
Bond Value = 40,480.55 + 55,839.50 = Tk. 96,320.05
✅ Bond Value = Tk. 96,320.05 (approx)
Method 2: NPV-style Tabular Approach
Note: Period 10 includes Coupon + Face Value = 5,500 + 1,00,000 = Tk. 1,05,500  ·  Discount rate per period = 6%
PeriodCash Flow (Tk.)Discount Factor (6%)Present Value (Tk.)
15,5000.94345,188.68
25,5000.89004,895.00
35,5000.83964,617.92
45,5000.79214,356.53
55,5000.74734,109.93
65,5000.70503,877.29
75,5000.66513,657.82
85,5000.62743,450.77
95,5000.59193,255.45
101,05,5000.558458,910.66
Total Present Value96,320.05
✅ Bond Value (NPV-style) = Tk. 96,320.05
Note Both methods yield the same result. The bond is trading at a discount (below par) because the required return (12%) is higher than the coupon rate (11%).

6. (a) Cost of Equity using CAPM

Ke = Rf + β × (Market Risk Premium)
= 4% + 1.2 × 6%
= 4% + 7.2% = 11.2%
✅ Cost of Equity (CAPM) = 11.2%
Given Risk-free rate = 4%  ·  Beta = 1.2  ·  Market Risk Premium = 6%

6. (b) Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

Given: Equity (E) = BDT 40 crore  ·  Debt (D) = BDT 60 crore  ·  V = 100 crore
Ke = 11.2%  ·  Kd = 8%  ·  Tax rate = 30%
WACC = (E/V) × Ke + (D/V) × Kd × (1 – Tc)
We = 40/100 = 0.40  ·  Wd = 60/100 = 0.60
After-tax Kd = 8% × (1 – 0.30) = 8% × 0.70 = 5.6%
WACC = (0.40 × 11.2%) + (0.60 × 5.6%)
= 4.48% + 3.36% = 7.84%
✅ WACC = 7.84%
Note The after-tax cost of debt is used because interest payments are tax-deductible. The WACC represents the overall required return for the company’s investors.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 6th Banking Professional Examination, 2025
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Case 1: Green Tech Ltd. – A Case in Comparative Stock Valuation

Case Scenario: Green Tech Ltd. is a publicly listed solar panel manufacturing company. The company has shown steady growth over the past 5 years and has a consistent dividend payment history.

Financial data of Green Tech Ltd. (Current year)

  • Current market price per share: BDT 150
  • Earnings Per Share (EPS): BDT 12
  • Dividend Per Share (DPS): BDT 6
  • Return on Equity (RoE): 15%
  • Retention Ratio: 50%
  • Expected Market Return: 10%
  • Risk-free Rate: 5%
  • Company beta: 1.2
  • Industry Average P/E Ratio: 14

Task: As an Investment Professional conduct a comparative analysis of the fair value estimation of Green Tech Ltd’s shares using the Gordon Growth Model and the P/E Multiple Methods. Discuss the advantages and limitations of both methods and provide reasoning for which method is more appropriate in this case.

Questions:

  1. What is the intrinsic value of the stock using the Gordon Growth Model (GGM) and the P/E Method?
  2. Based on the two estimates, is the stock overvalued or undervalued compared to its current market price?
  3. What are the limitations of each approach in this case?
  4. Which method is more reliable for Green Tech Ltd.? Why?

Solutions

(a) Intrinsic Value – GGM & P/E Method

Step 1 – Cost of Equity (CAPM)
Ke = Rf + β × (Rm – Rf)
= 5% + 1.2 × (10% – 5%) = 5% + 1.2 × 5%
= 5% + 6% = 11.0%
Step 2 – Sustainable Growth Rate (g)
g = ROE × Retention Ratio
= 15% × 50% = 7.5%
Check DPS = BDT 6, EPS = BDT 12 → Payout Ratio = 6/12 = 50% ✓
Gordon Growth Model (GGM)
P0 = D1 / (Ke – g)
D1 = D0 × (1 + g) = 6 × (1 + 0.075) = BDT 6.45
P0 = 6.45 / (0.11 – 0.075) = 6.45 / 0.035
= BDT 184.29
✅ GGM Intrinsic Value = BDT 184.29
P/E Multiple Method
Value = Industry Avg P/E × EPS
= 14 × 12 = BDT 168.00
✅ P/E Based Value = BDT 168.00

(b) Comparison with Current Market Price (BDT 150)

Current Market PriceBDT 150.00
GGM Intrinsic ValueBDT 184.29
P/E Multiple ValueBDT 168.00
Analysis:
  • GGM value (BDT 184.29) is 22.9% above market price → suggests the stock is undervalued
  • P/E value (BDT 168.00) is 12.0% above market price → also suggests undervaluation
  • Both methods indicate the stock is undervalued relative to its current market price of BDT 150

(c) Limitations of Each Approach

Gordon Growth Model
  • Assumes constant growth indefinitely – unrealistic for most companies
  • Very sensitive to inputs (Ke and g); small changes cause large value swings
  • Requires positive and stable dividend history – Green Tech has consistent dividends, so this is less of an issue here
  • Does not account for non-dividend value drivers like growth opportunities
  • Requires Ke > g, which holds here (11% > 7.5%)
P/E Multiple Method
  • Relies on industry average – may not reflect Green Tech’s unique characteristics
  • Ignores growth differences between companies (high-growth vs. low-growth)
  • Does not account for risk or cost of equity differences
  • Can be distorted by temporary earnings fluctuations or accounting differences
  • Assumes the industry multiple is appropriate for the specific company

(d) Which Method is More Reliable for Green Tech Ltd.? Why?

Recommendation: The Gordon Growth Model (GGM) is more reliable for Green Tech Ltd. in this case because:

  • The company has a consistent dividend payment history and a stable payout ratio (50%)
  • The sustainable growth rate (7.5%) is derived from fundamentals (ROE × retention ratio), making it more grounded
  • GGM incorporates the company’s specific risk profile through the CAPM-derived cost of equity (11%)
  • The P/E multiple approach relies on the industry average, which may not capture Green Tech’s competitive advantages, growth prospects, or risk profile

Conclusion: While both methods suggest undervaluation, the GGM provides a more company-specific estimate. The P/E method serves as a useful cross-check, but GGM is the preferred primary valuation tool in this case.


THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 6th Banking Professional Examination, 2025
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Case 2: Sukuk Bond

Case Scenario: The auction for the 6th Government investment Sukuk, a seven-year Ijara Sukuk for Tk. 2,000 crore with an annual rental yield of 10.50%, was held on 19 May 2025.

Investors submitted bids for 4.17 times of the announced amount. Individual and provident fund investors accounted for 17.50% of the issued amount. This category had accounted for only 1.40% of the total Tk. 22,000 crore issued earlier. Islamic branches or windows of conventional banks bid nearly 18 times of their allocated quota.

Task Statement: As an Investment analyst, evaluate the implications of this oversubscribed Sukuk issuance for capital market development, Islamic financing and investor behavior in Bangladesh.

Questions:

  1. What does such a huge oversubscription indicate?
  2. Why is the high individual participation significant?
  3. What is the role of Sukuk bonds in meeting the development financing needs of Bangladesh?
  4. How can Islamic banks benefit from these Sukuk bonds beyond investment?
  5. What are the effects of secondary market tradability on the demands of Sukuk bonds?

Solutions

(a) What does such a huge oversubscription indicate?

The 4.17 times oversubscription (bids for Tk. 8,340 crore against Tk. 2,000 crore) indicates:

  • High investor confidence – investors trust the government’s creditworthiness and the Sukuk structure
  • Liquidity surplus – financial institutions have excess funds seeking Shariah-compliant investment avenues
  • Limited Islamic investment options – the massive oversubscription reflects a supply-demand gap in Islamic financial instruments
  • Attractive yield – the 10.50% rental yield is competitive compared to alternative fixed-income options
  • Growing Islamic finance awareness – both conventional and Islamic institutions are actively participating
Key Insight: The 18x bidding by Islamic branches of conventional banks is particularly striking – it suggests Islamic windows are starved of investable Shariah-compliant assets and aggressively bidding to secure allocations.

(b) Why is the high individual participation significant?

Individual and provident fund investors accounted for 17.50% of the issued amount, a dramatic increase from only 1.40% in earlier issuances. This is significant because:

  • Financial inclusion – retail investors are gaining access to government-backed Islamic investment products
  • Diversification of investor base – reduced reliance on institutional investors strengthens market stability
  • Growing Islamic finance literacy – individual investors are increasingly seeking Shariah-compliant savings options
  • Provident fund participation – pension funds allocating to Sukuk indicates institutional acceptance of Islamic instruments
  • Democratization of investment – small investors can now participate in government securities, which was previously dominated by banks and financial institutions
Key Insight: This shift from 1.40% to 17.50% represents a 12.5x increase in retail participation – a clear sign of changing investor behavior and growing confidence in Sukuk as a viable investment option.

(c) What is the role of Sukuk bonds in meeting the development financing needs of Bangladesh?

Sukuk plays a critical role in development financing:

  • Infrastructure funding – proceeds can finance large-scale infrastructure projects (roads, bridges, energy, etc.)
  • Islamic financing alternative – provides a Shariah-compliant instrument for government borrowing
  • Mobilizing domestic savings – channels domestic liquidity into productive development projects
  • Reducing foreign dependency – reduces reliance on foreign borrowing and foreign exchange risks
  • Asset-backed financing – Ijara Sukuk represents real assets, promoting tangible economic development
  • Development of capital markets – deepens and diversifies the bond market, essential for long-term economic growth
Key Insight: The successful Sukuk program can pave the way for public-private partnerships and attract foreign Islamic investment into Bangladesh’s development projects.

(d) How can Islamic banks benefit from these Sukuk bonds beyond investment?

Beyond direct investment returns, Islamic banks gain multiple benefits:

  • Liquidity management – Sukuk can be used as collateral for interbank borrowing and repo transactions
  • Shariah compliance assurance – provides certified Shariah-compliant assets for their investment portfolios
  • Asset-liability matching – long-term Sukuk (7 years) helps match long-term liabilities
  • Regulatory capital relief – government Sukuk may qualify for regulatory liquidity ratios (SLR, CRR)
  • Customer confidence – offers safe, government-backed products to their customers, enhancing trust
  • Capacity building – develops expertise in Sukuk structuring and trading
  • Diversification – reduces concentration risk in their investment portfolios
Key Insight: The 18x bidding by Islamic bank windows indicates they see Sukuk as strategic assets for managing their balance sheets and regulatory requirements, not just passive investments.

(e) What are the effects of secondary market tradability on the demands of Sukuk bonds?

Secondary market tradability significantly impacts Sukuk demand:

  • Enhanced liquidity – investors can exit before maturity, making Sukuk more attractive
  • Price discovery – active trading reveals fair market value, improving pricing efficiency
  • Risk management – allows investors to adjust portfolio exposure based on market conditions
  • Broader investor base – attracts short-term and tactical investors alongside long-term holders
  • Reduced liquidity premium – lower required return as investors can liquidate positions easily
  • Market development – creates a yield curve for Islamic instruments, facilitating future issuances
  • Volatility concerns – can introduce price volatility, especially during market stress
  • Shariah compliance in trading – requires careful structuring to ensure secondary trading remains Shariah-compliant
Key Insight: The lack of a deep secondary market for Sukuk in Bangladesh may actually inflate primary market demand as investors rush to secure allocations. Developing secondary market infrastructure would further boost demand by making Sukuk more liquid and attractive to a wider range of investors, including foreign portfolio investors.

Overall Conclusion

The oversubscribed Sukuk issuance reflects a paradigm shift in Bangladesh’s capital market:

  • Growing Islamic finance ecosystem – strong demand validates the market potential
  • Retail investor awakening – individuals are actively seeking Shariah-compliant investment options
  • Development financing enabler – Sukuk can become a pillar for infrastructure funding
  • Secondary market critical – developing trading infrastructure is essential for sustainable growth

The success of this issuance should encourage the government to increase Sukuk offerings, diversify tenures, and invest in secondary market infrastructure to unlock the full potential of Islamic capital markets in Bangladesh.


THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 5th Banking Professional Examination, April-2025
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

2. (a) What is cash flow modeling? Describe steps in cash flow modeling.

2. (b) Company XYZ has a cost of equity of 12%, a cost of debt of 5% and a tax rate of 25%. The company’s equity is valued at Tk. 10 lac and its debt is valued at Tk. 5 lac. What is the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for company XYZ?

3. (a) Differentiate between Futures and Options.

3. (b) What is economic forecasting? What are the points to consider for economic forecasting?

3. (c) Based on the following data, find the enterprise value of ABC PLC. (Show calculations):

  • Share price: Tk. 25
  • Number of outstanding shares: 40 million
  • Short-term debt: Tk. 85 million
  • Long-term debt: Tk. 215 million
  • Cash and cash equivalents: Tk. 80 million

Solutions

2. (a) Cash Flow Modeling

What is Cash Flow Modeling?

Cash flow modeling is the process of projecting a company’s future cash inflows and outflows over a specific period. It is a fundamental tool in corporate finance, investment banking, and financial planning used to assess liquidity, solvency, valuation, and the ability to meet financial obligations.

Steps in Cash Flow Modeling
  1. Define the scope and objective – Determine the time horizon, purpose (valuation, budgeting, etc.), and level of detail required.
  2. Gather historical financial data – Collect income statements, balance sheets, and cash flow statements for past 3-5 years.
  3. Project revenue – Forecast future sales based on historical growth rates, market trends, and industry analysis.
  4. Project operating expenses – Estimate costs including COGS, operating expenses, depreciation, and amortization.
  5. Calculate operating cash flow – Determine cash generated from core business operations (EBIT + Depreciation – Taxes).
  6. Project capital expenditures (CapEx) – Estimate investments in fixed assets required to support growth.
  7. Project changes in working capital – Forecast changes in current assets and liabilities (receivables, inventory, payables).
  8. Calculate free cash flow – FCF = Operating Cash Flow – CapEx – Changes in Working Capital.
  9. Discount cash flows – Apply appropriate discount rate (WACC) to calculate present value.
  10. Sensitivity and scenario analysis – Test assumptions under different scenarios to assess risk and robustness.
  11. Review and validate – Cross-check with industry benchmarks and adjust for anomalies.

2. (b) Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

Given: Ke = 12%  ·  Kd = 5%  ·  Tax rate = 25%  ·  E = Tk. 10 lac  ·  D = Tk. 5 lac
WACC = (E/V) × Ke + (D/V) × Kd × (1 – Tc)
V = E + D = 10 + 5 = Tk. 15 lac
We = 10/15 = 0.6667  ·  Wd = 5/15 = 0.3333
After-tax Kd = 5% × (1 – 0.25) = 5% × 0.75 = 3.75%
WACC = (0.6667 × 12%) + (0.3333 × 3.75%)
= 8.00% + 1.25% = 9.25%
✅ WACC for Company XYZ = 9.25%

3. (a) Futures vs. Options

FeatureFuturesOptions
ObligationObligation to buy/sell at expiryRight (not obligation) to buy/sell
Payoff profileLinear (symmetric gains/losses)Non-linear (asymmetric, limited loss)
PremiumNo premium; margin requiredPremium paid upfront
SettlementDaily mark-to-market settlementExercised at expiry or before
Risk profileUnlimited loss potentialLimited to premium paid (buyer)
StandardizationHighly standardized (exchange traded)Standardized or OTC
PurposeHedging & speculationHedging, speculation, income generation

3. (b) Economic Forecasting

What is Economic Forecasting?

Economic forecasting is the process of predicting future economic conditions, trends, and indicators using historical data, statistical models, and expert judgment. It helps businesses, governments, and investors make informed decisions about investments, policy, and strategic planning.

Points to Consider for Economic Forecasting
  • Data quality and reliability – Use accurate, timely, and consistent data from credible sources.
  • Choice of forecasting model – Select appropriate models (econometric, time series, AI-based) based on context.
  • Assumptions and limitations – Clearly document underlying assumptions and acknowledge limitations.
  • Macroeconomic variables – Consider GDP growth, inflation, interest rates, employment, and trade balances.
  • Political and regulatory environment – Account for policy changes, elections, and geopolitical risks.
  • External shocks – Assess potential impact of unforeseen events (pandemics, wars, natural disasters).
  • Leading vs. lagging indicators – Use leading indicators (PMI, consumer confidence) for predictive power.
  • Sector-specific factors – Consider industry trends, technological disruptions, and competitive dynamics.
  • Scenario planning – Develop multiple scenarios (base, optimistic, pessimistic) to capture uncertainty.
  • Continuous revision – Update forecasts as new data becomes available and conditions change.

3. (c) Enterprise Value of ABC PLC

Given: Share price = Tk. 25  ·  Shares = 40 million  ·  Short-term debt = Tk. 85M  ·  Long-term debt = Tk. 215M  ·  Cash = Tk. 80M
Enterprise Value = Market Cap + Total Debt – Cash & Cash Equivalents
Market Cap = Share Price × Number of Shares = 25 × 40M = Tk. 1,000 million
Total Debt = Short-term debt + Long-term debt = 85M + 215M = Tk. 300 million
Cash & Cash Equivalents = Tk. 80 million
Enterprise Value = 1,000M + 300M – 80M = Tk. 1,220 million
✅ Enterprise Value of ABC PLC = Tk. 1,220 million (or Tk. 122 crore)
Note Enterprise Value represents the total value of the company to all stakeholders (equity and debt holders), net of cash, and is used in valuation multiples like EV/EBITDA.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 99th Banking Professional Examination, 2024
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

3. (a) “Bond prices and the market interest rates are inversely related”—Explain the statement.

3. (b) A Tk. 1,00,000 par value bond bearing a coupon rate 10% will mature after 6 years. What is the value of the bond, if the discount rate is 14%? (Show calculations)

Given: Present Value of an Annuity of 1 for 6 years: @ 10% → 4.3553  ·  @ 14% → 3.8887

3. (c) What is the purpose of stress testing a financial model?

Solutions

3. (a) Bond Prices and Market Interest Rates – Inverse Relationship

The statement “Bond prices and market interest rates are inversely related” means that when market interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and when market interest rates fall, bond prices rise.

Explanation:

  • A bond’s price is the present value of its future cash flows (coupons and face value) discounted at the market interest rate.
  • When market rates increase, the discount rate increases, reducing the present value of future cash flows → bond price decreases.
  • When market rates decrease, the discount rate decreases, increasing the present value → bond price increases.
  • This relationship is non-linear (convex) and is fundamental to bond pricing and duration analysis.
Example: A bond with a fixed 10% coupon will become less attractive if new bonds offer 14%, so its price must fall to offer a competitive yield to maturity.

3. (b) Bond Valuation (Annual Coupon)

Method 1: Formula-based Approach
Given: Par Value (F) = Tk. 1,00,000  ·  Coupon Rate = 10% (annual) → Coupon (C) = Tk. 10,000  ·  Maturity (n) = 6 years  ·  Discount Rate (r) = 14%  ·  PVIFA @14% for 6 years = 3.8887
Bond Value = (C × PVIFAr,n) + (F × PVIFr,n)
PV of coupons = 10,000 × 3.8887 = 38,887.00
PV of Par Value = 1,00,000 × (1 / 1.146)
= 1,00,000 × 0.4556 = 45,560.00
Bond Value = 38,887.00 + 45,560.00 = Tk. 84,447.00
✅ Bond Value = Tk. 84,447.00
Note The bond is trading at a discount (below par) because the coupon rate (10%) is lower than the required return (14%).
Method 2: NPV-style Tabular Approach
Note: Year 6 includes Coupon + Face Value = 10,000 + 1,00,000 = Tk. 1,10,000  ·  Discount rate = 14%
YearCash Flow (Tk.)Discount Factor (14%)Present Value (Tk.)
110,0000.87728,772.00
210,0000.76957,695.00
310,0000.67506,750.00
410,0000.59215,921.00
510,0000.51945,194.00
61,10,0000.455650,116.00
Total Present Value84,448.00
✅ Bond Value (NPV-style) = Tk. 84,448.00 (approx)
Note Both methods yield the same result (small rounding differences). The bond is trading at a discount because the coupon rate (10%) is lower than the required return (14%).

3. (c) Purpose of Stress Testing a Financial Model

Stress testing is a risk management technique used to evaluate how a financial model or portfolio performs under extreme, adverse market conditions.

Key Purposes:

  • Identify vulnerabilities – Reveals hidden risks and weaknesses in the model or portfolio.
  • Assess capital adequacy – Evaluates whether sufficient capital is available to withstand shocks.
  • Evaluate liquidity risk – Tests if the institution can meet obligations during crises.
  • Improve decision-making – Provides insights for better risk management and strategic planning.
  • Regulatory compliance – Meets requirements set by central banks and financial regulators (e.g., Basel III).
  • Scenario planning – Helps prepare for worst-case scenarios like economic downturns, interest rate spikes, or market crashes.
Example: A bank might stress-test its loan portfolio by simulating a 5% increase in unemployment to see potential default rates and capital impact.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 98th Banking Professional Examination, 2024
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

1. (a) Distinguish between historical returns and expected returns?

1. (b) How do you understand an investment risk and what statistic tools can be used to measure it?

1. (c) Refer to the following information on joint stock returns for stock 1, 2 and 3 in the table:

ProbabilityStock-1Stock-2Stock-3
0.200.200.250.10
0.30-0.050.100.05
0.250.100.050.00
0.250.00-0.10-0.05

If you must choose only two stocks to your investment portfolio, what would be your choice? Present your arguments to explain your decision:

  • (i) Stocks 1 and 2
  • (ii) Stocks 1 and 3
  • (iii) Stocks 2 and 3
  • (iv) Any other.

Solutions

1. (a) Historical Returns vs. Expected Returns

FeatureHistorical ReturnsExpected Returns
DefinitionPast actual returns realizedFuture anticipated returns
Based onHistorical data & recordsProbability & forecasting models
NatureKnown & certain (ex-post)Uncertain & estimated (ex-ante)
UsePerformance evaluationInvestment decision-making
CalculationAverage of past returnsΣ (Probability × Return)
ReliabilityLess relevant for futureMore relevant for future

1. (b) Investment Risk & Measurement Tools

Understanding Investment Risk

Investment risk is the possibility that actual returns from an investment will differ from expected returns. It encompasses the uncertainty and potential for financial loss. Risk arises from various sources including market volatility, economic conditions, company-specific factors, and liquidity constraints.

Statistical Tools to Measure Risk
  • Standard Deviation (σ) – Measures the dispersion of returns around the mean. Higher σ = higher risk.
  • Variance (σ²) – The square of standard deviation; measures return volatility.
  • Beta (β) – Measures systematic risk relative to the market. β > 1 = more volatile than market.
  • Sharpe Ratio – Measures risk-adjusted return: (Return – Risk-free rate) / Standard Deviation.
  • Value at Risk (VaR) – Estimates maximum potential loss over a given time period at a confidence level.
  • Coefficient of Variation (CV) – Measures risk per unit of return: Standard Deviation / Expected Return.

1. (c) Portfolio Selection – Risk & Return Analysis

Step 1: Expected Return of Each Stock
E(R) = Σ (Pi × Ri)
Stock 1
= 0.20(0.20) + 0.30(-0.05) + 0.25(0.10) + 0.25(0.00)
= 0.04 – 0.015 + 0.025 + 0 = 5.0%
Stock 2
= 0.20(0.25) + 0.30(0.10) + 0.25(0.05) + 0.25(-0.10)
= 0.05 + 0.03 + 0.0125 – 0.025 = 6.75%
Stock 3
= 0.20(0.10) + 0.30(0.05) + 0.25(0.00) + 0.25(-0.05)
= 0.02 + 0.015 + 0 – 0.0125 = 2.25%
Step 2: Standard Deviation of Each Stock
σ = √Σ [Pi × (Ri – E(R))²]
Stock 1
σ₁ = √[0.20(0.20-0.05)² + 0.30(-0.05-0.05)² + 0.25(0.10-0.05)² + 0.25(0.00-0.05)²]
= √[0.0045 + 0.0030 + 0.000625 + 0.000625] = √0.00875 = 9.35%
Stock 2
σ₂ = √[0.20(0.25-0.0675)² + 0.30(0.10-0.0675)² + 0.25(0.05-0.0675)² + 0.25(-0.10-0.0675)²]
= √[0.00666 + 0.000317 + 0.0000766 + 0.007016] = √0.01407 = 11.86%
Stock 3
σ₃ = √[0.20(0.10-0.0225)² + 0.30(0.05-0.0225)² + 0.25(0.00-0.0225)² + 0.25(-0.05-0.0225)²]
= √[0.00120 + 0.000227 + 0.000127 + 0.001314] = √0.002868 = 5.36%
Step 3: Covariance & Correlation Matrix
Formula: Cov(X,Y) = Σ Pi × (RX – E(RX)) × (RY – E(RY))
Cov(1,2) = 0.20(0.15×0.1825) + 0.30(-0.10×0.0325) + 0.25(0.05×-0.0175) + 0.25(-0.05×-0.1675) = 0.00486
Cov(1,3) = 0.20(0.15×0.0775) + 0.30(-0.10×0.0275) + 0.25(0.05×-0.0225) + 0.25(-0.05×-0.0725) = 0.00205
Cov(2,3) = 0.20(0.1825×0.0775) + 0.30(0.0325×0.0275) + 0.25(-0.0175×-0.0225) + 0.25(-0.1675×-0.0725) = 0.00302
Correlation (ρ) = Cov(1,2) / (σ₁ × σ₂) = 0.00486 / (0.0935 × 0.1186) = 0.44
ρ(1,3) = 0.00205 / (0.0935 × 0.0536) = 0.41
ρ(2,3) = 0.00302 / (0.1186 × 0.0536) = 0.48
Step 4: Portfolio Returns & Risk (Equal Weight = 50% each)
Stocks 1 & 2
E(Rp) = 0.5(5%) + 0.5(6.75%) = 5.875%
σp = √[(0.5)²(0.0935)² + (0.5)²(0.1186)² + 2(0.5)(0.5)(0.00486)]
= √[0.002185 + 0.003517 + 0.00243] = √0.008132 = 9.02%
CV = 9.02/5.875 = 1.54
Stocks 1 & 3
E(Rp) = 0.5(5%) + 0.5(2.25%) = 3.625%
σp = √[(0.5)²(0.0935)² + (0.5)²(0.0536)² + 2(0.5)(0.5)(0.00205)]
= √[0.002185 + 0.000718 + 0.001025] = √0.003928 = 6.27%
CV = 6.27/3.625 = 1.73
Stocks 2 & 3
E(Rp) = 0.5(6.75%) + 0.5(2.25%) = 4.50%
σp = √[(0.5)²(0.1186)² + (0.5)²(0.0536)² + 2(0.5)(0.5)(0.00302)]
= √[0.003517 + 0.000718 + 0.00151] = √0.005745 = 7.58%
CV = 7.58/4.50 = 1.68
Step 5: Recommendation

Recommended Choice: (i) Stocks 1 and 2

Why Stocks 1 & 2?
  • Highest return (5.875%) among all combinations
  • Lowest risk per unit of return (CV = 1.54)
  • Best risk-return trade-off
  • Moderate correlation (0.44) provides diversification benefit
Comparison Summary
PortfolioReturnRisk (σ)CV
1 & 25.875%9.02%1.54 ✓
1 & 33.625%6.27%1.73
2 & 34.50%7.58%1.68
Conclusion: Stocks 1 & 2 offer the highest expected return with the best risk-adjusted performance (lowest CV). While Stocks 1 & 3 have lower absolute risk, they also offer significantly lower returns. Stocks 2 & 3 fall in the middle. Therefore, Stocks 1 and 2 is the optimal choice for a risk-averse investor seeking the best return per unit of risk.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) Banking Professional Examination
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

3. (a) What is WACC? How do you calculate it?

3. (b) Company XYZ has a cost of equity 12%, a cost of debt 5% and a tax rate 25%. The company equity valued at Tk. 10 million, and its debt is valued at Tk. 5 million. What is the WACC for Company XYZ? Please show all your calculation.

3. (c) Why do you multiply by (1-tax rate) in calculation of WACC?

Solutions

3. (a) Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC)

What is WACC?

WACC (Weighted Average Cost of Capital) is the overall required rate of return for a company, representing the average cost of all sources of financing — including equity, debt, and preferred stock — weighted by their respective proportions in the company’s capital structure. It is the minimum return a company must earn on its existing assets to satisfy its investors (both equity holders and debt holders).

How to Calculate WACC
WACC = (E/V) × Ke + (D/V) × Kd × (1 – Tc)

Where:

  • E = Market value of equity
  • D = Market value of debt
  • V = Total value of capital (E + D)
  • Ke = Cost of equity
  • Kd = Cost of debt (before tax)
  • Tc = Corporate tax rate
Step-by-Step Process:
  1. Determine the market value of equity (E) and debt (D).
  2. Calculate total value V = E + D.
  3. Calculate weights: We = E/V and Wd = D/V.
  4. Calculate after-tax cost of debt: Kd × (1 – Tc).
  5. Apply the WACC formula.

3. (b) WACC Calculation for Company XYZ

Given: Ke = 12%  ·  Kd = 5%  ·  Tax rate = 25%  ·  E = Tk. 10 million  ·  D = Tk. 5 million

Step 1: Calculate Total Value (V)

V = E + D = 10M + 5M = Tk. 15 million

Step 2: Calculate Weights

We = E/V = 10M / 15M = 0.6667 (66.67%)
Wd = D/V = 5M / 15M = 0.3333 (33.33%)

Step 3: Calculate After-Tax Cost of Debt

After-tax Kd = 5% × (1 – 0.25) = 5% × 0.75 = 3.75%

Step 4: Apply WACC Formula

WACC = (E/V) × Ke + (D/V) × Kd × (1 – Tc)
= (0.6667 × 12%) + (0.3333 × 3.75%)
= 8.00% + 1.25% = 9.25%
✅ WACC for Company XYZ = 9.25%
Note The WACC of 9.25% represents the minimum return Company XYZ must earn on its investments to satisfy both equity and debt investors.
Alternative Presentation: Component Breakdown
ComponentValue (Tk. M)WeightCostWeighted Cost
Equity1066.67%12.00%8.00%
Debt (after-tax)533.33%3.75%1.25%
Total15100%9.25%

3. (c) Why multiply by (1 – Tax Rate) in WACC?

The term (1 – Tax Rate) is multiplied by the cost of debt in the WACC formula to account for the tax shield benefit of debt financing.

Detailed Explanation:

  • Interest is tax-deductible – Companies can deduct interest payments on debt from their taxable income, reducing the net cost of debt.
  • Tax shield benefit – The government effectively subsidizes a portion of the interest cost through tax savings.
  • Example: If a company pays 5% interest on debt and has a 25% tax rate, the actual cost of debt after tax is only 5% × (1 – 0.25) = 3.75%. The remaining 1.25% is saved through tax deduction.
Key Insight: Without the (1 – Tax Rate) adjustment, the WACC would overstate the true cost of debt financing. This adjustment makes WACC a true reflection of the actual cost of capital to the company.

THE INSTITUTE OF BANKERS, BANGLADESH (IBB) 96th Banking Professional Examination, 2023
AIBB · INVESTMENT BANKING (IB)

Questions

6. (a) What is meant by security valuation? Mention basic elements of security valuations?

6. (b) Explain the valuation process of bond?

6. (c) At which price you will be willing to purchased a bond having the following information:

  • Par value Tk. 1,000
  • Annual coupon payment 10%
  • Maturity period 03 years
  • Required rate of return 5% (show your calculation)

Solutions

6. (a) Security Valuation & Basic Elements

What is Security Valuation?

Security valuation is the process of determining the intrinsic or fair value of a financial asset (such as stocks, bonds, or derivatives) by analyzing its future cash flows, risk characteristics, and other relevant factors. It helps investors and analysts decide whether a security is overvalued, undervalued, or fairly priced in the market.

Basic Elements of Security Valuation
  • Future Cash Flows – Expected income from the security (dividends, interest, principal repayment, or capital gains).
  • Required Rate of Return (Discount Rate) – The minimum return investors expect based on risk, opportunity cost, and market conditions.
  • Time Horizon – The period over which cash flows are expected to occur.
  • Risk Assessment – Evaluation of uncertainty, volatility, and probability of achieving expected returns.
  • Growth Prospects – Expected growth rate of earnings, dividends, or cash flows.
  • Market Conditions – Economic environment, interest rates, industry trends, and investor sentiment.
Key Insight: Valuation is based on the fundamental principle that “the value of any financial asset is the present value of its expected future cash flows”.

6. (b) Bond Valuation Process

Bond valuation is the process of determining the fair price of a bond by discounting its expected future cash flows (coupon payments and principal repayment) to present value using an appropriate discount rate (required rate of return).

Step-by-Step Bond Valuation Process:

  1. Identify the bond’s cash flows – Determine periodic coupon payments and the principal (face value) at maturity.
  2. Determine the discount rate – Use the required rate of return (market yield) appropriate for the bond’s risk level.
  3. Calculate the present value of coupon payments – Discount each coupon payment using the required rate.
  4. Calculate the present value of the principal – Discount the face value to its present value.
  5. Sum all present values – Add the PV of coupons and PV of principal to get the bond’s intrinsic value.
Bond Value = (C × PVIFAr,n) + (F × PVIFr,n)
Note: If the bond pays coupons semi-annually, adjust the coupon payment, discount rate, and number of periods accordingly.

6. (c) Bond Price Calculation

Given: Par Value (F) = Tk. 1,000  ·  Coupon Rate = 10% → Coupon (C) = Tk. 100  ·  Maturity (n) = 3 years  ·  Required Return (r) = 5%
Method 1: Formula-based Approach
Bond Value = (C × PVIFAr,n) + (F × PVIFr,n)
PVIFA5%,3 = [1 – (1.05)−3] / 0.05 = 2.7232
PVIF5%,3 = 1 / (1.05)3 = 0.8638
PV of Coupons = 100 × 2.7232 = 272.32
PV of Par Value = 1,000 × 0.8638 = 863.80
Bond Value = 272.32 + 863.80 = Tk. 1,136.12
✅ You would be willing to purchase the bond at Tk. 1,136.12 or less.
Note The bond is trading at a premium (above par) because the coupon rate (10%) is higher than the required return (5%).
Method 2: NPV-style Tabular Approach
Note: Year 3 includes Coupon + Face Value = 100 + 1,000 = Tk. 1,100  ·  Discount rate = 5%
YearCash Flow (Tk.)Discount Factor (5%)Present Value (Tk.)
11000.952495.24
21000.907090.70
31,1000.8638950.18
Total Present Value1,136.12
✅ Bond Value (NPV-style) = Tk. 1,136.12
Note Both methods yield the same result. The bond is trading at a premium because the coupon rate (10%) is higher than the required return (5%). You should be willing to pay up to Tk. 1,136.12 for this bond.